csat paper 1
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NUMEN CIVIL SERVICE COACHING CENTRE
Civil Service (Preliminary), 2013
TEST SERIES
CSAT Paper I (TEST 1)
NUMEN COACHING CENTRE, ANJANEYAM, LMN 14, KUNNINPURAM LANE,
LAXMINAGAR, NEAR LIC, PATTOM, TRIVANDRUM
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1. The International Telecommunication Union
(ITU) is responsible for issues that
concern information and communication
technologies. Which of the following
statements is correct about it?
1) ITU is an agency of the United Nationswhich also sets rules of communication for
Internet
2) International Telecommunication
Regulations (ITR) represents binding
agreement between countries regarding the
rules for telecommunication
3) The ITU coordinates the shared global use
of the radio spectrum, promotes
international cooperation in assigning
satellite orbits.
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 (d) All the above
2. Cable Television Network (Regulation)
Amendment Act has made it mandatory to
digitalize cable network across the country.
Which of the statements regarding digitization
are correct?
1) Digitization would allow using television,
internet as well as telephony using the
same cable line
2) Digital transmission however is more
susceptible to theft as compared to analog
transmission
3) The existing co-axial cable lines will need
to be replaced for digitalization of network
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. The Pharmaceutical sector has consistently
been in news with matters relating to
acquisition of Indian companies by the foreign
ones and also granting of compulsory licensing
by the Government. Select the correct
statement from below.
1) The Indian Pharma sector has moved
from Product based patent regime to
Process based regime as required by TRIPS
2)100% FDI is allowed through automatic
approval route for all investments under
this sector
3) After complying with TRIPS agreement
the time period after which license could be
granted under normal conditions for
generic drug production has increased.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 only
(c) 2 only (d) 3 only
4. With melting of ice in the Arctic, there has
been an increased interest for its potentialresources. Consider the following statements
regarding the Arctic Council and choose the
correct ones?
1) Arctic Council is a United Nations forum
to resolve conflict among the disputing
nations and to safeguard it as part of global
commons
2) India has recognized the Arctic States
sovereignty, sovereign rights and
jurisdiction in the Arctic
3) India is pushing forward to be a
permanent member of the Arctic Council
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 3 only
(c) 2 only (d) 2 and 3
5. Which of the following statements regarding
International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) is
correct?
1) Ratification of Nuclear Non-ProliferationTreaty is not a precondition to join IAEA
2) It is independent of United Nations but
reports to UN Security Council and UN
General Assembly
3) All countries signing NPT are automatically
put under IAEA safeguards
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4) India though non signatory to NPT has
committed to open its civilian nuclear
facilities to IAEA inspection.
(a) 2 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All the above
6. If water only absorbed light and did not
scatter it, what colour would the water appear
from above?
(a) Blue (b) Yellow
(c) Black (d) White
7. The CBI is one of the premier investigation
agencies of India. Consider the followingstatements about it
1) It draws its powers from the CBI act
1946.
2) It is under the supervision of the CVC in
corruption cases, and under the
Department of Personnel and Training in
other matters.
3) It can take up investigation of crimes in
states only with the consent of the state
government concerned or under thedirections of the courts.
Which of the above are correct?
a) 1 only b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3 d) All the above
8. Which of the following statements about
Right to Information (RTI) is/are correct?
1) Information under RTI can be sought via
e-mail
2) Both Article 19 and Article 21 give
constitutional support to RTI
3) The File Notings are exempted from
disclosure under RTI
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of the above
9. Indias National Policy on Biofuels aims to
promote biofuels as an important componentof our energy mix to reduce oil imports.
Consider the following statements regarding
Biofuels and state which of them are true?
1) Bioethanol could be mixed with diesel as
fuel for usage in diesel vehicles.
2) Jatropha plantation for biodiesel is
adversely impact food security of India by
diverting fertile agricultural lands for its
plantation
3) Extract from Jatropha seeds coulddirectly be used (without refining) in diesel
generators
(4) There is MSP for non-edible oil seeds
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
10. Which of the following is not a source for
biofuel?
1) Seaweed
2) Grass
3) Algae
4) Hydrogen fuel
5) Animal Fats
6) Peat
(a) 1 only (b) 4 and 6
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
11. Large areas of organic wetland (peat) soils
are currently drained for agriculture, forestry
and peat extraction. Choose the correct
statements from below.
1. Peat forms in wetland conditions, where
flooding obstructs the flow of oxygen from
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(a) 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
16. The IUCN Red List of Species (also known as
the IUCN Red List or Red Data List) is the world'smost comprehensive inventory of the
global conservation status ofbiological species.
When discussing the IUCN Red List, the official
term threatened is a grouping of which of the
following categories?
1) Critically Endangered
2) Extinct from Wild
3) Endangered
4) Vulnerable
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
17. Reserved forests or Protected forests are
terms denoting forests accorded a certain
degree of protection. Which of the following
statements regarding them are correct?
1) In Reserved forests, explicit permission is
required for activities like logging, grazing
2) In Protected forests, activities like
logging, grazing are allowed unless explicitly
prohibited
3) Reserved forests and Protected forests
are declared by the respective state
governments while National Parks are
declared by Government of India
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 only
(c) All of the above (d) None of the above
18. Which of the following statements
regarding a Biosphere Reserve is correct?
1) Protection is granted to the flora and
fauna of the protected region, and the
human communities who inhabit these
regions are evicted
2) It comes under Category V of IUCN
Protected areas
3) Research, Development and logistics is
an important aspect of Biosphere Reserves
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 only (d) All of the above
19. In a bid to bring environmental concerns
into mainstream accounting, the government
plans to release green GDP data from
2015.What is Green GDP?
(a) Calculating the total value of all the
produce that has taken place in sustainable
manner
(b) Adjusting the countrys GDP accounting
for economic costs of environmental
degradation
(c) Calculating the total value of all the
environmental resources available for
production process
(d) None of the above
20. Availability of drugs at the right price is
essential for a nations health. The NewPharmaceutical Pricing Policy(NPPP) is deigned
to realize this vision. Which of the following are
the principles of the NPPP to control prices?
1) Recognition of Drugs as an essential good
2) Cost of production based pricing
3) Control of prices of only bulk drugs and
intermediaries
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 (d) All of the above
21. Speaker is the guardian of powers and
privileges of the members of Lok Sabha. Which
of the following with respect to the Speaker are
correct?
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1) His power of regulating procedure orconducting business is not subject to
jurisdiction of any Court
2) He has to resign from his membershipof his party on his election as Speaker
3) He does not have right to vote onlegislations
4) He nominates a panel of Chairpersonsto preside the House in his absence
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 4 only (d) 1 and 3
22. Recently the President of India Shri. Pranab
Mukherjee stressed the importance of
popularizing Alternate methods of DisputeResolution (ADR). Consider following
statements regarding different tools of ADRs
(Arbitration, Conciliation, Mediation,
Negotiation) and select the correct answer from
the given codes.
1) While Mediation would involve making
proposals for settlement, Conciliation
would merely facilitate a settlement
between the parties.
2) Once submitted for arbitration, theArbitrator renders their verdicts and
imposes them, with or without the consent
of the parties.
3) Negotiation does not involve any third
party and is done by the parties themselves.
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 (d) All of the above
23. The Law of the Sea Convention (UNCLOS)defines the rights and responsibilities of nations
in their use of the world's oceans and the
management of marine natural resources.
Which of the following statements regarding
UNCLOS is/are correct?
1) Vessels of foreign countries have right to
passage through territorial waters of another
country if it does not prejudice its security or
peace
2) A country can initiate prosecution against
the offender for crime committed in its
contiguous zone
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 (d) none of the above
24. Acts of Piracy threaten maritime security by
endangering the welfare of seafarers and the
security of navigation and commerce. Consider
the following statement with respect to piracy
and choose the correct ones?
1) There is universal jurisdiction and action
can be taken against pirates withoutobjection from the flag state of the pirate
vessel.
2) There are problems in prosecution of
pirates since piracy as a crime is not
recognized under Indian criminal law
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 (d) None of the above
25. Which of the following statementsregarding the National Investigating Agency
(NIA) is correct?
1) NIA has concurrent jurisdiction with states
and does not need permission of states for
investigation into matters under its mandate
2) Apart from terrorism it also deals with
narcotics and drug trafficking
3) It however has only investigating powers
without powers of arrest and prosecution
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 (d) All of the above
26. Cabinet Committee on Investment (CCI) has
been set up to quicken the process of clearance
in time bound manner for important projects
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which have been facing delays. Choose the
correct options from below regarding the same.
1) It is chaired by the Finance minister
2) Cabinet Secretariat is the nodal agency
for coordinating CCI meetings and setting
agenda
3) It can override decision by individual
ministry
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 3 only
(c) 2 only (d) None of the above
27. The UN has asked India to revoke AFSPA
saying it had the no place in Indian democracy
and is against International Covenant on Civil
and Political Rights. Choose the correctstatements with respect to the same.
1) Central Government as well the Governor
of state can declare an area as Disturbed
for application of AFSPA
2) AFSPA is currently being applicable to all
the seven North Eastern States
3) Justice Jeevan Reddy commission
constituted to study this act has called for its
repeal
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of the above
28.World Conference on International
Telecommunications (WCIT) in Dubai, on
December 2012 reviewed the International
Telecommunication Regulations (ITRs),
designed to facilitate international
interconnection and interoperability of
information and communication services.Choose the correct statements regarding this
conference.
1) It proposed to establish regulatory
oversight by UN over internet
2) While India opposed it US and UK were in
support of such regulation
3) Currently ICANN, an international
multilateral organization controls
coordination of internet protocol, address
spaces and management of top level domain
names
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 (d) None of the above
29. Pandit Ravi Shankar who recently passed
away was an expert Sitar player. Which of
following is/are correct about Sitar?
1) Modern Sitar, which today has many
strings, originated as three string instrument
during Mughal rule
2) The South Indian tradition of musicgenerally doesnt use Sitar in compositions
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above
30. Designer crops are designed to solve the
food security concerns of the resource starved
earth. Consider following statements regarding
designer crops and select the correct answer
from the given codes.
1) Designer crops are also called transgenic
crops.
2) It uses Marker Assisted Selection,
wherein gene sequencing is used.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 (d) None of the above
31. As per the Convention on Biodiversity (CBD)
which among the following conditions are the
criteria for the designation of Ecologically and
Biologically Significant Areas (EBSA).
1) Uniqueness or Rarity
2) Special importance for life history stages
of species and habitats
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3) Vulnerability, fragility, sensitivity, or slow
recovery
4) Biological productivity
5) Naturalness
(a) 1, 3, 4 and 5 (b) 2,3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) All of the above
32. A new study has found that exposure to
Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) may also
play a role in developing type 2 diabetes. Which
of the following are characteristics of POPs.
1) High water solubility
2) Semi-volatility
3) Low lipid solubility
4) They tend to accumulate in colder
regions of the world
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 (d) All of the above
33. Past two months several sea turtle or green
turtle carcasses have been found littering along
coastline in Tamilnadu.
1) Green turtle is in the endangered
category of IUCN Red List
2) They usually migrate from the Polar
Regions to the Indian coast during the
breeding season
3) It is the only known sea turtle species
that is herbivorous
4) The species' common name does not
derive from any particular green external
coloration of the turtle.
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1and 2
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
34. India had created National Clean Energy
Fund (NCEF) out of a cess at the rate of Rs. 50
per tonne of coal to invest in entrepreneurial
and research in clean energy technologies.
Choose the correct statements from below.
1) Carbon tax is revenue positive when itinvolves no adjustment to other tax rates in
the economy.
2) Carbon tax is revenue neutral when other
tax rates are adjusted so that the revenue
inflow from carbon tax is exactly balanced
by an equal reduction in yields from
reduced taxes
3) It is levied on both public as well as
private companies.
4) Even if we follow a revenue neutralpolicy we would incur a loss on the GDP
side.
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of the above
35. Nicobar Megapod and Narcondum Hornbill
were in news with respect to question of
Security vs. Environment, over which the
Defence Ministry and Environment Ministry
fought. Which of the following statements
about them is/are correct?
1) Nicobar Megapod is a critically
endangered bird under IUCN.
2) Narcondum Hornbill is a bird species
native to North East India.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above
36. The three ecological pyramids that areusually studied are pyramid of number, pyramid
of biomass and pyramid of energy. Which of the
following statements are true about them?
1) Pyramid of energy always shows a
decrease towards higher trophic level
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2) Pyramid of number can increase or
decrease towards higher trophic level
3) Pyramid of biomass always shows a
decrease towards higher trophic level
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of the above
37. Interspecific interactions arise from the
interaction of populations of two different
species. Select the correct statements about
different types of interaction?
1) Commensalism refers to interaction
where both the interacting species neither
harm each other nor benefit
2) Amensalism refers to interaction whereone species benefits while other is harmed
3) Competition refers to interaction where
both the species are negatively affected
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 only
(c) 1 only (d) All of the above
38. Use of Bt Cotton has been a subject of
debate ever since its introduction with it having
fair share of success as well as failures. How isBt Cotton different from normal ones?
1) It consists of a genetic trait taken from a
pest resistant plant to save it from pest
attack
2) This implanted genetic trait codes for a
protein that that gets activated only in the
alkaline medium of insects gut, thus killing
them without affecting human beings
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above
39. Mobile touch screens basically operate on
either Resistive touch or Capacitive touch.
Select the correct statements regarding them.
1) Resistive touch screen is more costly but
has better clarity than Capacitive
2) Resistive touch screen have longer life
than Capacitive
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above
40. The Government of India Act. 1919 brought
forth the concept ofDiarchy in the Indian
political landscape. How was the concept of
diarchy envisaged under the act?
(a) It for the first time introduced Bicameral
legislature i.e. the Upper House and the
Lower House
(b) It demarcates the Central and Provincialsubjects
(c) It divides provincial subjects between
Executive Council and the popular Ministers
(d) It provides for setting up of
Parliamentary panel in the House of Lords
to look after Indian affairs
41. Which of the following statements regarding
Constituent Assembly are correct?1) The Constituent Assembly was truly a
representative body as it members were
elected by the people on the basis of
universal adult franchise
2) The Constituent Assembly was constituted
under the scheme formulated by the
Mountbatten Plan
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above
42. Cornwallis brought about significant
changes in administration during his tenure.
Which of the following reforms were
undertaken by him?
1) He modernized and rationalized civil
services in India
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4) S-waves are considered the most
damaging.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All the above
48. Consider the following statements about
Fogs and choose the correct ones.
1) Fogs are more common in sea than in
land.
2) Dense fogs are more likely to occur in
the tropics rather than the high and
middle latitude.
3) Fog occurs only in lower strata of
atmosphere.
4) The fog associated with the leakage of
radioactive elements is called radiation
fog.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) None of the above
49. The latitudinal differences in pressure
delineate a number of major pressure zones,
which correspond with
(a) Zones of climate
(b) Zones of ocean
(c) Zones of land
(d) Zones of cyclonic depression
50. The landforms that are created by massive
earth movements due to plate tectonics are
called
(a) Structural landforms
(b) Depositinal landforms
(c) Erosionial landforms
(d) Weathering landforms
51. Rangarajan Panel was set up to look into the
current issues regarding Sugar pricing and
regulatory control over it. Select from below the
correct statements regarding existing
mechanism of controls over sugarcane and
sugar.
1) Each farmer has a designated sugar mill
and can sell his produce only to that mill.
2) Sugar mills have to set aside 10% of their
produce reserved for government
procurement for Targeted Public Distribution
System
3) There is mandatory jute packing for sugar
4) Government decides as to how much
sugar is released into the domestic open
market for sale by mill owners
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of the above
52. Which of the following statements is true
about Rajiv Gandhi Equity Saving Scheme?
1) The scheme is targeted at encouraging
small investors to enter capital market
2) This scheme is applicable to first time
investors only
3) Investment under this scheme however
does not attract tax benefit
4) There is no lock-in period for the
investment
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4
53. Priority sector refers to those which may
not get timely and adequate credit in absence
of special attention. Choose the correct
statements regarding priority sector.
1) Education and Housing are included under
it
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2) There are separate targets for credit
disbursement under it for small and micro
industries as well as for weaker sections
3) Loans given to Micro finance institutions
for loaning it to agricultural needs comes
under priority sector lending
4) All the loans under priority sector have
lower interest rates
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All of the above
54. Which of the following would result in
regressive taxation policy going against the
principle of equity?
1) Increase in Excise duty
2) Increase in Sales tax
3) Increase in Personal Income tax
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 only (d) 3 only
55. Anti-Dumping Duty and Countervailing Duty
are two mechanisms which India uses to protect
domestic industry from foreign ones. Choose
the correct statements from below with respect
to them.
1) Countervailing Duty is applied to imported
goods to counterbalance impact of excise
duty on indigenous manufacturers
2) Anti-Dumping Duty is product specific and
not country or company specific
3) Anti-Dumping duty is recognized by WTO
as fair practice against cheap foreign goods.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
56. Current Account Deficit (CAD) has emerged
as an important cause of worry for the
Government, with deficit reaching as high as
5.4% of GDP. Which of the following measures
can reduce CAD?
1) Deregulation of Diesel prices
2) Increased FDI inflows
3) Speeding up environmental clearances forcoal mines
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 4 (d) All of the above
57. What is Transfer Pricing?
(a) Method used by MNCs to shift profit
from high taxation countries to low taxation
ones to reduce tax burden
(b) It is the process of routing investmentsto a country through tax havens
(c) It is reducing import duty burden by
quoting low cost price
(d) Hedging the price of commodity against
volatility in global market
58. India is trying to move away from WPI
(Wholesale Price Index) towards CPI (Consumer
Price Index).Which of the following are the
benefits of CPI over WPI?
1) Data collections is easy in CPI
2) The variations in price is lesser for CPI
3) It is easy to monitor
4) More weightage is given to primary
goods
(a) 4 only (b) 1 and 4
(c) 3 only (d) 1 and 2
59. How does increase in fiscal deficit have
adverse effect on Balance of Payments?
1) By making cost of external borrowing
high
2) By resulting in outflow of foreign capital
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3) By reduction in imports
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only (d) 1 and 3
60. The qualification and disqualification of a
Member of Parliament is laid down in the
Constitution and its enabling Representation of
Peoples Act. Which of the following statements
are correct?
1) He must be registered as an elector in the
parliamentary constituency he is contesting
the election
2) He is disqualified if he holds an Office of
Profit3) He must not have been under detention
under any preventive detention law
4) The Speakers decision is final on the
question of disqualification after consulting
with the Election Commission
(a) 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 only (d) 2 and 4
61. Abortion laws have been debated all
throughout the world recently. The Medical
Termination of Pregnancy Act of 1971 legalised
abortion subject to the fulfilment of certain
conditions. Which of the following are among
the conditions stipulated by the Act?
1) Risk of death or grave mental or physical
injury to the health of the pregnant woman
2) Risk that the child, if born, would suffer
from serious physical or mentalabnormalities
3) Where the pregnancy is caused by rape
4) Where the female hasnt attained 18
years of age
5) Where a married woman is pregnant as a
result of the failure of a contraceptive device
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 (b) 1, 3 and 5
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of the above
62. 13th Finance Commission has emphasized
on reduction of revenue deficit to 0% of GDPunder the FRBM mechanism. Which of the
following measures would decrease revenue
deficit?
1) Implementation of New Pension Scheme
2) Reduced Government Borrowings
3) Disinvestment
4) Deregulation of Urea Prices
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of the above
63. Subsidiary alliance was widely used by Lord
Wellesley to bring Indian states within the orbit
of British political power. Consider the
statements about the same and choose the
correct ones.
1) According to the treaty Indian state had
to surrender both its internal and external
affairs to the company.
2) State was to accept a British Resident at
its head-quarters.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above
64. Battle of Plassey was a turning point in the
history of India. Consider the following
statements regarding this and choose the
correct ones.
1) By this battle English East India Company
secured territorial rights of the entire Bengal
Province
2) The Indian side was represented by Shah
Alam, Mir Qasim and Shuja Ud daula
3) The French East India Company had sent
their contingent to help Indian side
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(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None of the above
65. Harappan civilization was one of the most
advanced of its contemporary civilizations.Which of the following is/are correct regarding
the same?
1) Harappans used iron for the advancement
of their civilization.
2) Harappans had planned their cities.
3) They worshiped nature.
4) They were considered as a peace loving
society.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of the above
66. Consider the following about Falkland
Islands and chose the correct ones.
1) They are located near SouthernArgentina in the Pacific Ocean
2) They are hotly disrupted territoriesbetween Argentina, Chile and United
Kingdom
3) They are under the control of UK(a) 1 and 3 (b) 3 only
(c) 1 only (d) All of the above
67. The budget of 2012-13 had introduced a
new term called Effective Revenue Deficit.
What does it indicate?
(a) Revenue deficit adjusted to inflation
(b) Revenue deficit adjusted to account for
capital expenditure from revenue account
(c) Interest payments subtracted from
Revenue Deficit
(d) None of the above
68. Why has there been an increase in demand
for Gold in India over the last two years?
1) Because of Inflation
2) Lack of financial instruments available to
average citizen especially in rural areas
3) Volatility in equity market
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 (d) All of the above
69. The Economic Survey has made certain
important observation with respect to LPG
subsidies at a time when government is trying
to reduce its subsidy burden. Which among the
following statements is correct as per the
survey?
1) There is highly un-equitable distribution
of subsidies in both Urban and Rural areas
2) In rural areas the richest population
corner majority of LPG subsidies unlike
Urban areas
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above
70. Policies of Bill and Melinda gates foundation
played a major role in eradicating polio from
India. Which among the following term is most
suitably associated with this foundation?
(a) Social Business
(b) Sustainable Corporation
(c) Creative Capitalism
(d) Green Business
71. Indian Government has taken initiative to
introduce GAAR or General Anti Avoidance
Rules with a view to increase tax collections.
Choose the correct statements in relation to tax
controls.
1) Currently tax mitigation is legal, while
tax avoidance is illegal
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2) GAAR follows the doctrine of substance
over form
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above
72. What does the financial instrument Indian
Depositary Receipt (IDR) stand for?
1) It is a mechanism by which foreign
companies can raise capital in India by
issuing IDRs against their shares
2) It is a mechanism by which Indian
companies can raise capital abroad by
issuing IDRs against their shares
3) It is always issued in Indian Rupees
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only (d) 2 only
73. Which among the following items comes
under the invisibles category in Balance of
Payment?
1) Banking Consultation services
2) Remittances
3) Tourism
4) Business Process Outsourcing
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All of the above
74. Which of the following statements with
respect to Morley-Minto reforms (Council Act
1909) are correct?
1) It introduced the principle of ministerial
responsibility for the first time
2) It was the first instance of direct election
to provincial legislature
3) It introduced voting on budget for the first
time
4) It clarified for the first time that the
objective of British rule in India is granting
Self Government in the future
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 3 only
75. Which of the following statements
regarding the First World War and Indias
freedom struggle are correct?
1) Moderates and extremists including Tilak
supported the war efforts of the British
2) Montague-Chelmsford reforms promised
Self-Government to placate aspirations of
the Indians
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 (d) None of the above
76. Which of the following statements is correct
about the historic annual session of Congress at
Nagpur in 1920?
1) The Congress committed itself to a
programme of extra-constitutional means
of action
2) The Working Committees of theCongress were formed to look into its
activities on a day to day basis
3) The resolution, for launching Non-
Cooperation movement under the
leadership of Gandhiji, was passed
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only (d) All of the above
77. The Mughals ruled the country for almostthree centuries. Which of the following is
correct w.r.t the mighty Mughal Empire?
1) The reign of Shah Jahan, who built the
Red Fort of Delhi, is considered the golden
period of Mughal architecture and arts
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2) The Mughal Empire reached the zenith
of its territorial expansion during the reign
of Aurangzeb
3) Akbar led Mughals in the war against
Marathas, in which the Marathas suffered
heavy loss.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only (d) All of the above
78. Indian classical music refers to the art music
of the Indian subcontinent and is in vogue since
the Vedic times. Consider the following
statements and choose the correct answer.
1) Western music is in single melody
format while Indian classical music ispolyphonic
2) While Hindustani Music derives a lot from
its Persian counterpart, the Carnatic music is
of indigenous origin.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 (d) None of the above
79. A democratic polity as stipulated in the
Preamble is based on the doctrine of popularsovereignty. Which of the following statements
are correct regarding democracy?
1) India is among those countries that
provides for direct democracy
2) Head of the State in both UK and India is
elected
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 (d) None of the above
80. Consider the following statements regarding
the power of Parliament with respect to
creation of new states, altering boundaries and
other territorial changes and choose the correct
options
1) Constitution authorizes Parliament to alter
boundaries, names of states only with the
approval of states
2) Establishing new states does not need
constitutional amendment under Article 368
3) Parliament can cede a part of Indian
Territory to other country though a
constitutional amendment
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only (d) All of the above
81. Which of the following statements
regarding the impact of National Emergency on
Fundamental Rights are correct?
1) All the rights available under Article 19 areautomatically suspended when National
emergency due to external aggression is
declared
2) Through a separate Presidential order
enforcement of all the Fundamental Rights
could be suspended during National
Emergency declared due to War
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 (d) None of the above
82. 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment
aimed to achieve democratic decentralization
through strengthening Local Self Government
bodies. Which among the following are
mandatory provisions provided in the
Amendment Act?
1) Constitution of State Finance Commission
2) Direct election to all seats in Panchayats
at the village, intermediate and district level3) Reservation for Backward Classes
4) Reserving 1/3rd.
seats for women in
Panchayats at all three levels
(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) All of the above
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83. The office of CAG has been called as the
most important office of the country by Dr.
Ambedkar. Which of the following statements
are correct?
1) He is appointed by President on the
recommendation of a collegium consisting ofPrime Minister, Leader of Opposition and
Home Minister
2) He is eligible for further office under
Government of India unlike the Chairman of
UPSC
3) He holds the office till the pleasure of the
President
4) He submits the audit report to the
Speaker who in turn lays it down before the
Lok Sabha
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 (d) None of the above
84. Which among the following statements is
correct regarding the jurisdiction of Supreme
Court?
1) Supreme Court has the choice to tender
or not to tender its opinion on Presidential
reference regarding any question of publicimportance
2) It has original, exclusive and final
authority regarding disputes related to
election of President and Vice-President
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 (d) None of the above
85. Which of the following statements
regarding pardoning powers of the Presidentare correct?
1) President and Governor have concurrent
powers with respect to pardoning of death
sentence
2) President can pardon sentences inflicted
by Court Martial while Governor cannot
3) Pardoning power of President cannot be
exercised without the advice of Union
cabinet
4) The petitioner for mercy has right to oral
hearing by President
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
86. In what way does International Court of
Justice (ICJ) differ from International Criminal
Court (ICC)?
1) ICJ is the judicial wing of UN while ICC is
an independent international organization
not governed by UN
2) ICC can punish only individuals while ICJcan punish both individuals as well as states
3) India is opposed to the existing
mechanism at ICC and hence is not a
member while it is a member of ICJ
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
87. Part III of Constitution of India relates to the
fundamental rights. They are available onlyagainst the State. What all constitutes State as
per definition under Article 12?
1) Executive and Legislative wings of Union
and State Government
2) Judiciary
3) Private body working as an
instrumentality of the state
4) Local Self-Government bodies
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) All of the above
88. Following are the statements regarding the
Parliamentary and Presidential system of India
and US respectively. Choose the correct options
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1) President is a constituent part of
Parliament of India just Like United States
where he is an integral part of US Congress
2) Rajya Sabha which is regarded as Council
of States draws its members from
representatives of states only
3) Unlike US Senate all states are given equal
representation in Rajya Sabha
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 (d) None of the above
89. Under the system of proportional
representation all sections of people get equal
representation. In India for which of the
following elections is proportionalrepresentation used?
1) Election of members to Rajya Sabha
2) Election of members to State Legislative
Council
3) Election of President
4) Election of Vice President
5) Election of Speaker
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of the above
90. Which of the following statement regarding
the working of induction cooking is true?
1) In induction cooking the source of heat is
the cooking vessel itself
2) Ferromagnetic vessels are more suitable
for induction cooking as compared to copper
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 (d) None of the above
91. Incineration and Gasification are two
technologies that could be used for municipal
waste treatment, currently emerging as an
important issue in urban areas. Choose the
correct statements regarding the above
technologies
1) Incineration and Gasification both involve
combustion of waste at high temperatures
2) Incineration requires lesser oxygen as
compared to Gasification
3) The toxic waste in Gasification process is
high as compared to that of incineration
because of incomplete burning in
gasification process
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 (d) None of the above
92. Which of the following aspects of cloud
computing mentioned below is correct?
1) SAAS (Software As A Service) refers to
provision of computing platform for
application developers
2) IAAS (Infrastructure As A Service) refers to
provision of hardware like servers, storage
network etc.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 (d) None of the above
93. Despite the controversies that arose due to
cases of death following the dose of
pentalvalent vaccine during pilot study in some
states (Kerala, Haryana) as well as
internationally, Madhya Pradesh is mulling to
launch Pentavalent vaccine under the National
Immunization Programme that targets five
infections. Which among the following are the
diseases targeted under it?
1) Diphtheria2) Poliomyelitis
3) Tuberculosis
4) Pertussis
5) Haemophilus influenzae Type B diseases
(a) 1, 3, 4 and 5 (b) 1, 3 and 4
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